 In discussing a somewhat controversial Governing Body prohibition (that of oral sex between married people, which has changed more then once from being outlawed, to a conscience matter, and back to being outlawed) the 2000 Watchtower below mentions how the GB can outlaw oral sex, or for that matter, anything.
*** w00 11/1 p. 8 par. 6 A Godly View of Moral Cleanness ***
6 What is meant by the word “fornication”? It comes from the Greek word por•nei´a, which is sometimes used to apply to sexual relations between unmarried people. (1 Corinthians 6:9) Elsewhere, such as at Matthew 5:32 and Matthew 19:9, the term is broader in meaning and refers additionally to adultery, incest, and bestiality. Other sexual practices between individuals not married to each other, such as oral and anal sex and the sexual manipulation of another person’s genitalia, can also be designated as por•nei´a. All such practices are condemned—either explicitly or by implication—in God’s Word.—Leviticus 20:10, 13, 15, 16; Romans 1:24, 26, 27, 32.*
* See The Watchtower, March 15, 1983, pages 29-31.
It isn’t my intention to discuss this teaching specifically. However, it’s the comment “or by implication” that is interesting. When you get down to it, how much of Jehovah’s Witness teaching comes from an explicit biblical statement as opposed to an explicit Watchtower statement?
For example……..
Try finding the term Governing Body or the concept in the bible? We all know its in every other issue of the Watchtower. Is it a direct bible teaching, or an implication as taught by the Governing Body themselves?
Disfellowshipping as used specifically by the Governing Body. Is the concept taught in the bible? Or implied by the Governing Body?
What about the following “disfellowshipping offenses, such as smoking? Working for the government? They myriad of way’s “loose conduct” can be used to disfellowship for practically any reason? Are these things prohibited directly in the bible? Or directly prohibited by the Governing Body through their version of biblical implication?
Where in the bible does it teach that one must knock on doors to preach and convert in order to be saved from biblical destruction? Is that a direct bible teaching? Or is this yet another implied bible teaching as taught by the Governing Body?
Where in the bible does it teach that only “witnesses of Jehovah” will be saved through Armageddon, while the rest of Earth‘s population is destroyed for their non belief in Jehovah? Direct bible teaching? Or implied Governing Body teaching?
For that matter, why is the New World Translation the only bible out there to have the name “Jehovah” in it (237 times) when no other bible has it in the Greek Scriptures/NT? Why does the Governing Body insist that Jehovah’s name be included when it is in none of the manuscripts available for translators today? Is there an implication from Jehovah to do this?
It’s important to understand that if a person really believes that the Governing Body is THE channel of god, who in turn says that the bible trumps everything, why must they rely so much on “implied” teachings of the bible? Isn’t it easy to say that the bible implies all sorts of different things? Where is the accountability for the express authority that the GB over all active JW’s, esp. when their beliefs have changed over time? Why can’t active Witnesses be allotted at least some autonomy for their beliefs, and behave in a manner that the bible speaks to them personally?
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